April/2024 Latest Braindump2go VMCE_V12Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go VMCE_V12 Real Exam Questions!
QUESTION 81
The compliance team is requesting a Veeam engineer complete the following tasks on the backup environment:
1. All image-level backups are to be tested and validated
2. Recovery verification with a well-known malware scan
3. Send an email to the Veeam engineer with test results
What is the recovery verification function to meet this requirement?
A. On-Demand Sandbox
B. SureBackup
C. Quick Migration
D. SureReplica
Answer: B
Explanation:
SureBackup is the Veeam technology that allows you to verify the recoverability of backups. It can automatically verify the integrity of the backup, test it for malware (with the aid of third-party antivirus software), and send email notifications upon the completion of the job. This is accomplished by running the backups in an isolated environment called a Virtual Lab, without making any changes to the actual production environment. By using SureBackup, Veeam engineers can ensure that image-level backups are recoverable, can be verified against malware, and can report the results via email, thus meeting the compliance team’s requests.
QUESTION 82
An engineer sets up a backup job with direct backup to the AWS S3. The retention of the job is set to 31 days and the immutable period is set to 31 days. However, one full backup data is not removed automatically after 60 days.
Which option could be the reason for this?
A. The backup job is disabled accidentally.
B. The backup data is encrypted.
C. It is an active full backup, not synthetic full.
D. A retention exception is enabled for the restore point.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In active full backups, the entire dataset is backed up each time the backup job runs, whereas in synthetic full backups, only the changes since the last full backup are backed up. If the engineer configured the backup job to run active full backups instead of synthetic full backups, it’s possible that the data from the full backup taken 60 days ago is still being retained as part of the regular backup process. Therefore, it hasn’t been removed automatically after 60 days as expected.
QUESTION 83
An engineer is configuring Veeam Backup and Replication for an organization to protect a VMware environment using vSAN. The backup proxy must be isolated from the VMkernel.
Which transport mode should the engineer use?
A. Direct NFS access
B. Direct SAN access
C. Network mode
D. Virtual appliance
Answer: D
Explanation:
When configuring Veeam Backup & Replication in a VMware vSAN environment, the best practice is to use the Virtual Appliance transport mode. This mode is also referred to as “hot-add” and allows the backup proxy to mount VM disks directly from the datastore. This method is more isolated from the VMkernel network traffic, as it does not require network connectivity to the hosts to retrieve data, thus providing a level of isolation that meets the requirement stated in the question. The Direct NFS and Direct SAN options are not applicable for vSAN, and Network mode would not provide the necessary isolation from VMkernel network traffic.
QUESTION 84
What should be implemented when backing up NAS file shares to ensure there is more than one copy of the data?
A. Archive repository
B. Secondary copy
C. Backup repository
D. Cache repository
Answer: B
Explanation:
When backing up NAS file shares, it’s essential to ensure that more than one copy of the data exists to adhere to best practices for data protection, often referred to as the 3-2-1 Rule (3 total copies of your data, 2 of which are local but on different devices, and at least 1 copy offsite). Implementing a secondary copy of the data provides this additional layer of redundancy. In Veeam, this can be achieved by creating backup copy jobs, which ensure that there is a secondary copy of the data, possibly stored in a different location. This is not to be confused with the simple use of backup repositories, which are storage locations for primary backups, or with cache/archive repositories which serve different purposes in the backup process.
QUESTION 85
What happens if there are more than five unsuccessful attempts to enter the confirmation code during MFA login?
A. The user is permanently locked out.
B. The user is locked out for 24 hours.
C. The user is locked out for 1 minute.
D. The user is locked out for 1 hour.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If there are more than 5 unsuccessful attempts, the user can reopen the console and try to log in again after waiting for at least one minute. If the problem persists, the backup administrator can reset MFA by request.
https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/mfa.html?ver=120
QUESTION 86
Veeam ONE has been installed and configured. The administrator needs to monitor the VMware datastore capacity. Where can this information be found?
A. Under Infrastructure View, select the Datastores group and view the disk space.
B. Under Business View, select Hosts to see each datastore and its disk space.
C. Under Infrastructure View, select all VMs to calculate the remaining datastore disk space.
D. Under Business View, select VMs to see the total amount of used disk space.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Veeam ONE is a monitoring and reporting tool for Veeam Backup & Replication, as well as virtual environments like VMware vSphere and Microsoft Hyper-V. In Veeam ONE, you can monitor the capacity of VMware datastores by using the “Infrastructure View”. Within this view, there is a specific group for “Datastores” which provides comprehensive information, including the capacity and free space available on each datastore. This feature is designed to help administrators manage storage effectively and ensure they are alerted before reaching critical capacity limits. The “Infrastructure View” provides a more direct and focused way to monitor resources like datastores compared to “Business View”, which is typically used for categorizing and viewing the infrastructure based on business needs, rather than direct resource monitoring.
QUESTION 87
Veeam is being used to back up a Microsoft SQL VM with transaction logs being backed up every 30 minutes to a repository that is local to the Veeam Backup and Replication server. Business requirements dictate that the database backup and all logs also be stored on a secondary, standalone repository in the DR datacenter.
What should the Veeam engineer configure to meet the requirements?
A. Backup Copy Job in Periodic Copy mode
B. SOBR with Copy mode enabled
C. Backup Copy Job using the SQL Transaction Log Job as the source
D. Backup Copy Job in Immediate mode
Answer: D
Explanation:
You can not create a copy job for a transaction job since its a child job of the main backup job.
QUESTION 88
A Windows Server using the ReFS filesystem has been used as a standalone Veeam repository for several years and is due for replacement. A new Windows server using the ReFS filesystem has been created to replace the old server, with twice the capacity. Backup files need to be transferred to the new server with no disruptions to the existing backup chains. The Veeam engineer has begun to move backup files to the new repository but is now getting alerts that it is running out of space.
How could the engineer have avoided this issue?
A. Use a Backup Copy Job
B. Use the “Copy backup…” function
C. Use the “Move backup…” function
D. Use Robocopy with the /compress switch
Answer: C
Explanation:
To avoid running out of space when moving backups to a new repository, the “Move backup…” function in Veeam Backup & Replication should be used. This function allows you to relocate backup files to a new repository without duplicating data, which can save space. Unlike a simple copy action, the move function ensures that the backup chain remains intact and does not require additional space for a copy of the backups during the transfer. When the move is initiated, Veeam will also automatically update the configuration to point to the new backup location, thus preventing any disruptions in the backup chain.
QUESTION 89
A business has several remote sites that are backed up to the central Veeam infrastructure. After a few months, the amount of data has grown and backup copy jobs do not fit into the backup window. The current bandwidth is 20 Mbps. Management wants to avoid any additional investments.
Which option would improve backup duration?
A. Add more RAM to central VBR Server
B. Increase bandwidth to remote sites
C. Upgrade all remote instances to V12
D. Deploy WAN accelerators for remote sites
Answer: D
Explanation:
WAN accelerators are a feature in Veeam Backup & Replication that optimize data transfer over WAN connections. By deploying WAN accelerators at both the central VBR (Veeam Backup & Replication) server location and the remote sites, data transfer can be optimized to fit into the existing backup window without the need for additional bandwidth investment. WAN accelerators work by caching repetitive patterns of data, which significantly reduces the amount of data that needs to be transferred over the network after the initial job run. This makes it a cost-effective solution for improving backup duration when bandwidth is limited.
QUESTION 90
A software development company has deployed the Veeam Data Platform. Recently, developers have been making increasingly frequent requests to have files restored from their VMware VMs.
What can be done to reduce strain on the backup team?
A. Give developers access to the Veeam Plug-in for VMware vSphere Client
B. Give developers access to Veeam One Business View
C. Give the developers access to the Enterprise Manager Self-Service File Restore Portal
D. Outsource developer restore requests to a Managed Service Provider
Answer: C
Explanation:
To alleviate the workload on the backup team while still accommodating the frequent restore requests from developers, the most effective strategy is to empower the developers themselves with the ability to perform file restores. This can be achieved by granting them access to the Enterprise Manager Self-Service File Restore Portal. Veeam Enterprise Manager offers a Self-Service File Restore Portal, which allows users to independently restore files from backups of their VMs without the need for direct intervention by the backup team. This portal is designed with security and ease of use in mind, ensuring that developers can perform restores as needed while adhering to the principle of least privilege, thus reducing the strain on the backup team. This approach aligns with Veeam’s emphasis on enhancing operational efficiency and self-service capabilities in data management practices.
QUESTION 91
What does Veeam’s Secure Restore functionality ensure during restores?
A. Proper rights/permissions on files and folders
B. Custom ports for in-flight data
C. 256-bit AES encryption of in-flight data
D. Anti-virus scanning
Answer: D
Explanation:
Veeam’s Secure Restore functionality is designed to provide an additional layer of security during the restore process, particularly to ensure that restored data is free from malware. The correct answer is
D: Anti-virus scanning. Secure Restore integrates with antivirus software to scan the data being restored for malware, viruses, or other threats before it is brought back into the production environment. This capability is crucial in today’s landscape, where data integrity and security are paramount, especially considering the increasing sophistication of cyber threats. By ensuring that restored data is scanned for threats, Veeam helps maintain the integrity and security of the IT environment, aligning with best practices for data protection and disaster recovery.
QUESTION 92
A company is running nightly backups to satisfy their 24-hour RPO. There are two critical applications that cannot be offline more than 4 hours with no more than an hour of data loss.
How can this be accomplished?
A. Linux hardened repository with immutability
B. A local SOBR with AWS Object storage
C. Backup copy jobs with hourly VM replication
D. Enable Continuous Backup Replication
Answer: C
Explanation:
To meet the stringent Recovery Time Objective (RTO) of 4 hours and Recovery Point Objective (RPO) of 1 hour for the two critical applications, the most suitable approach is to use a combination of backup copy jobs and hourly VM replication, which corresponds to answer C. Backup copy jobs can ensure that backups are available offsite for disaster recovery purposes, while VM replication provides the ability to quickly failover to a replica VM in case of a primary VM failure, thereby minimizing downtime. Veeam’s replication capabilities are designed to create exact copies of VMs at regular intervals, which can then be rapidly activated in case of a failure. This strategy ensures that the applications can be brought back online within the 4-hour RTO, with data loss not exceeding the 1-hour RPO, thus meeting the company’s stringent data protection requirements for these critical applications.
QUESTION 93
Which two service offerings can a Veeam Cloud Service Provider provide to Veeam’s customers? (Choose two.)
A. Backup as a Service
B. Application Development as a Service
C. On premise tape
D. Physical site security as a Service
E. Disaster Recovery as a Service
Answer: AE
Explanation:
Veeam Cloud Service Providers (VCSPs) are equipped to offer a range of services designed to extend Veeam’s data protection capabilities to the cloud, enhancing the flexibility and reliability of backup and disaster recovery strategies for Veeam’s customers. The two service offerings that align with VCSP capabilities are:
A) Backup as a Service (BaaS) – This service allows Veeam customers to offload their on-premises backup operations to the cloud, leveraging cloud resources for storage and management of backups. BaaS simplifies backup processes, reduces the need for extensive on-premises infrastructure, and provides an added layer of data protection and accessibility.
E) Disaster Recovery as a Service (DRaaS) – DRaaS extends beyond basic backup services to offer a more comprehensive disaster recovery solution. It ensures not only the availability of backups but also the capability to rapidly restore and run critical workloads in the cloud in the event of a disaster, minimizing downtime and ensuring business continuity.
These services leverage the robust capabilities of Veeam Backup & Replication, tailored for cloud environments, to offer scalable, efficient, and secure data protection solutions.
QUESTION 94
A backup administrator decided to move the Veeam Backup & Replication server and configuration database to new servers. Which configuration restore mode should be used?
A. Restore
B. Planned failover
C. Failover plan
D. Migrate
Answer: D
Explanation:
The “Migrate” option is typically used when you’re moving the entire Veeam Backup & Replication infrastructure, including its configuration and database, to a new server environment. This option ensures that the configuration settings, jobs, and other relevant data are transferred accurately to the new servers while maintaining continuity and ensuring minimal downtime for backup and replication operations.
QUESTION 95
A Veeam administrator is creating a protection group that needs to back up all servers for the accounting department using Veeam Agent for Microsoft Windows. New accounting servers must be automatically added to the protection group. How is this accomplished?
A. Create an Active Directory based protection group targeted at an Active Directory security group.
B. Install a configuration file on each of the accounting servers that adds it to the protection group.
C. Create a protection group and set it to automatically scan every three hours for new servers.
D. Create a protection group that reads a CSV file listing the accounting servers.
Answer: A
Explanation:
To ensure that all servers for the accounting department are backed up and any new servers added to the department are automatically included in the protection group, the best approach is to use an Active Directory (AD) based protection group. Therefore, the correct answer is A: Create an Active Directory based protection group targeted at an Active Directory security group. By leveraging an AD-based protection group, the Veeam administrator can specify an AD security group that encompasses all user accounts or computer accounts (in this case, servers) associated with the accounting department. As new servers are introduced and added to this AD security group, Veeam Backup & Replication will automatically detect these new members during its periodic rescan (which can be scheduled as per the administrator’s preferences) and include them in the protection group. This method not only automates the inclusion of new servers into the backup routine but also simplifies the management of backup policies for dynamically changing environments such as the accounting department’s server infrastructure.
QUESTION 96
A customer has a local VMware environment that they back up locally and offload all retention to Wasabi’s Cloud. The local backups have become unavailable, and the customer has to recover from Wasabi’s Cloud.
What method would provide the fastest RTO from Wasabi so that users can interact with the recovered system?
A. Instant Recovery to EC2 VM
B. Restore Entire VM to local VMware VM
C. Instant Recovery to Wasabi Cloud VM
D. Instant Recovery to local VMware VM
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a scenario where a customer needs to recover from Wasabi’s Cloud due to local backups becoming unavailable, the method that would provide the fastest Recovery Time Objective (RTO) while allowing users to interact with the recovered system as quickly as possible is D: Instant Recovery to local VMware VM. Veeam’s Instant Recovery feature allows for the restoration of a backup directly into the production environment without the need to fully copy the backup data. When recovering from cloud storage like Wasabi, the backup data will be streamed on-demand to the local VMware environment, allowing the VM to start running immediately while the remaining data is transferred in the background. This method minimizes downtime and provides the quickest path to operational recovery, ensuring users can access the recovered system with minimal delay. It’s important to note that the effectiveness of this approach depends on the available bandwidth and the size of the data being recovered.
QUESTION 97
An administrator needs to dynamically add VMware VMs that have a custom application installed to a backup job. How can this job be created?
A. Use the RESTful API to scan the VM inventory for machines that match the criteria.
B. In Enterprise Manager, create a dynamic group of VMs that contain both tags.
C. Create a backup job based on vSphere tags.
D. Modify a custom CSV file to be scanned before the start of each job.
Answer: C
Explanation:
To dynamically include VMware VMs with a custom application installed in a backup job, the most efficient approach is C: Create a backup job based on vSphere tags. VMware vSphere tagging allows administrators to assign metadata to VMs, making it easier to categorize and manage them according to various criteria, such as application type, department, or any custom criteria relevant to the organization. Veeam Backup & Replication can leverage these tags to dynamically include VMs in backup jobs. By setting up a backup job to include VMs tagged with a specific identifier related to the custom application, any VM tagged accordingly will be automatically included in the backup job. This approach simplifies management, ensures consistency, and allows for the flexible and dynamic grouping of VMs based on changing criteria without the need for manual adjustments to the backup job configuration.
QUESTION 98
Which Veeam Backup & Replication functionality achieves the lowest RPO?
A. Backup Copy Job
B. Continuous Data Protection
C. Snapshot-based Replication
D. File to Tape
Answer: B
Explanation:
Within Veeam Backup & Replication, the functionality that achieves the lowest Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is B: Continuous Data Protection (CDP). CDP is designed to protect critical workloads by continuously capturing changes and replicating them to a target site, allowing for very low RPOs, often measured in seconds. This is achieved through the use of VMware’s vSphere APIs for I/O Filtering (VAIO), which intercepts and replicates I/O streams almost in real-time. CDP is particularly valuable for applications that require high levels of availability and cannot tolerate significant data loss. By providing near-continuous replication, CDP ensures that in the event of a failure or disaster, data loss can be minimized to a very narrow window, significantly reducing the potential impact on business operations.
QUESTION 99
A physical Windows file server protected by Veeam Agent for Windows needs to be migrated to a local VMware ESXi. The server has several volumes: C: (60GB), D: (1TB) and E: (4TB). What is the quickest option to migrate the server to a local VMware ESXi host?
A. Create an empty VM and perform bare metal recovery inside the VM.
B. Perform Instant Disk Recovery for each volume.
C. Export all disks, create an empty VM and attach the disks.
D. Perform Instant VM Recovery.
Answer: D
Explanation:
For the migration of a physical Windows file server to a local VMware ESXi host, the most efficient approach considering the server’s large data volumes is D: Perform Instant VM Recovery. Veeam’s Instant VM Recovery allows for the quick restoration of a backup into a VM running on an ESXi host. This process involves running the VM directly from the backup file without the need to fully restore the VM’s data to production storage initially. This method is particularly advantageous for large volumes as it minimizes the initial data transfer time, allowing the server to be operational in the virtual environment more rapidly. After the VM is up and running, Veeam provides the option to migrate the VM to production storage in the background, ensuring minimal disruption to operations.
This approach is ideal for scenarios requiring quick migration or restoration with large data sets.
QUESTION 100
A customer wants to start an on-demand lab from backup files for several mission critical VMs. What SureBackup feature should be configured to identify the necessary VMs?
A. Application Group
B. Virtual Lab
C. Staged Restore
D. Secure Restore
Answer: A
Explanation:
When starting an on-demand lab from backup files for mission-critical VMs, the appropriate SureBackup feature to configure is A: Application Group. An Application Group in Veeam Backup & Replication is a predefined group of VMs that are started together in the SureBackup job. This feature is designed to ensure that interdependent VMs, such as those comprising a multi-tier application, are started in a sequence that respects their operational dependencies, allowing for comprehensive verification and testing. The Application Group can include the mission-critical VMs and any associated VMs required for the application environment to function correctly, ensuring that all components are available and interact as expected within the isolated on-demand lab environment. This setup facilitates effective testing or troubleshooting in a manner that closely mirrors the production environment without impacting live operations.
QUESTION 101
What is a Recovery Point Objective (RPO) in regards to disaster recovery?
A. The number of recovery points created during the backup process
B. The acceptable data loss measured in time that can be tolerated
C. The maximum amount of time it takes to restore a system
D. The total cost associated with recovering a system
Answer: B
Explanation:
In the context of disaster recovery, the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) is best defined by option B:
The acceptable data loss measured in time that can be tolerated. RPO is a critical metric in disaster recovery and business continuity planning that specifies the maximum amount of data (measured in time) that an organization can afford to lose in the event of a disaster or system failure. It effectively sets the limit for how frequently data backups or replications should occur. For instance, an RPO of 4 hours means that the organization must be able to recover data from no more than 4 hours prior to the disaster, implying that backup or replication operations should occur at least every 4 hours. Establishing an RPO is essential for developing an effective data protection strategy, as it guides the choice of backup methodologies and technologies to meet the organization’s tolerance for data loss.
QUESTION 102
A 3-node Microsoft SQL Always On cluster is running in a VMware environment.
The RPOs are:
– 1 day for the cluster nodes
– 15 minutes for the log files
How should the cluster be backed up?
A. Veeam Backup and Replication – Create a VMware backup job, include the 3 nodes of the cluster.
Use Application-Aware Processing to back up the transaction logs every 15 minutes.
B. Veeam Agent for Windows – Create a managed by server backup job for all 3 nodes. Use Application-Aware Processing to back up the database once a day.
C. Veeam Agent for Windows – Create a managed by agent backup policy for all 3 nodes. Use a log shipping server to back up the transaction logs every 15 minutes.
D. Veeam Enterprise Plug-in for Microsoft SQL – Install the Plug-in on each node in cluster. Use Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio to create the backups.
Answer: A
Explanation:
For backing up a 3-node Microsoft SQL Always On cluster running in a VMware environment with the specified Recovery Point Objectives (RPOs), the most suitable option is A: Veeam Backup and Replication – Create a VMware backup job, include the 3 nodes of the cluster. Use Application-Aware Processing to back up the transaction logs every 15 minutes. This approach allows for the entire SQL cluster nodes to be backed up as part of a regular VM backup job, which satisfies the 1-day RPO for the cluster nodes. The Application-Aware Processing feature of Veeam Backup & Replication ensures that the SQL databases are in a consistent state during backup. Moreover, this feature allows for the transaction logs to be backed up separately at a more frequent interval, in this case, every 15 minutes, meeting the 15-minute RPO requirement for the log files. This dual approach ensures comprehensive protection for both the SQL cluster nodes and the critical transaction logs, aligning with the specified RPOs.
QUESTION 103
A customer wants to set up a Scale-Out Backup Repository. Due to malware concerns, immutability is recommended. An on-premises server can be used to hold primary backups, but it can only hold about 21 days of backups. A copy of the backups should be stored in AWS. The retention for all backups is 60 days.
Which configuration of a Scale-out Backup repository meets these requirements?
A. Copy mode
Performance Tier: Windows REFS, immutability set for 11 days
Capacity Tier: Amazon S3, immutability set for 60 days
B. Copy and move mode
Performance Tier: Windows REFS, immutability set for 11 days
Capacity Tier: Amazon S3, immutability set for 60 days
C. Copy mode
Performance Tier: Linux Hardened Repository, XFS, immutability set for 11 days
Capacity Tier: Amazon S3, immutability set for 60 days
D. Copy and move mode
Performance Tier: Linux Hardened Repository, XFS, immutability set for 11 days
Capacity Tier: Amazon S3, immutability set for 60 days
Answer: D
Explanation:
To meet the requirements of setting up a Scale-Out Backup Repository (SOBR) with immutability for malware protection and specific retention policies, the most fitting configuration is D: Copy and move mode with a Performance Tier configured on a Linux Hardened Repository using the XFS file system and immutability set for 21 days, and a Capacity Tier on Amazon S3 with immutability set for 60 days. This setup utilizes the copy and move mode to ensure that backups are first stored on the on-premises Linux Hardened Repository with an immutability setting that prevents modifications to backups, providing protection against malware for the most recent 21 days of backups. As this on- premises server has limited capacity, older backups beyond 21 days are moved to the Capacity Tier in Amazon S3, where they are also protected with immutability for the entire 60-day retention period. This configuration leverages the strengths of both on-premises and cloud storage while ensuring that all backups are protected from modification or deletion by immutability, aligning with the customer’s malware protection concerns and retention requirements.
QUESTION 104
A Veeam engineer needs to copy backup files from a Windows repository in Site A to a Linux repository in Site B. The WAN connection between the two sites is busy during business hours. The engineer needs to configure a backup copy job to accomplish this task. Which feature of the backup copy job should be configured to avoid transferring data during business hours?
A. Immediate copy
B. Periodic copy
C. WAN accelerator
D. Backup Copy Window
Answer: D
Explanation:
In a scenario where a Veeam engineer needs to manage backup file transfers between two sites without impacting bandwidth during business hours, the most appropriate feature to configure in the backup copy job is D: Backup Copy Window. The Backup Copy Window setting in Veeam Backup & Replication allows for specifying the time frame during which the backup copy job is allowed to transfer data. By configuring this window to exclude business hours, the engineer can ensure that the backup copy job transfers data only during off-peak hours, thereby avoiding additional strain on the WAN connection when it is most needed for business operations. This approach provides the flexibility to balance the need for offsite backups with the practical bandwidth considerations of a busy WAN connection, ensuring that backup activities do not interfere with critical business functions.
QUESTION 105
An administrator is asked to change a backup copy job from periodic mode to immediate mode. How can this be accomplished?
A. Enable immediate in the backup copy job settings drop down.
B. Right click on the job name and choose immediate.
C. Copy the original backup copy job to a different folder and remap the job.
D. Create a new backup copy job and delete the original job.
Answer: A
Explanation:
https://helpcenter.veeam.com/docs/backup/vsphere/backup_copy_modes.html?ver=120#changing-backup-copy-modes
QUESTION 106
An engineer wants to make sure that a single SQL Database can be recovered in a consistent manner with an RPO that will offer the least impact on the production environment during production hours. Granular restores should be performed with the Veeam console as the company does not have a DBA and is not using SQL Management Studio (SSMS).
The engineer took the following steps:
– Created a separate job for the MS SQL VMs
– At guest processing, enabled application-aware processing and provide the credentials with sufficient permissions
– Schedule the job to run every 24 hours
Which other change can the engineer make for this job to achieve the proposed goals?
A. Schedule transaction log processing every 30 minutes
B. Remove the VM and add only the SQL Databases in the job
C. Set the backup job to perform recovery using Veeam Explorer for SQL
D. Schedule the job to run every 30 minutes
Answer: A
Explanation:
To achieve the goal of recovering a single SQL Database in a consistent manner with minimal impact on the production environment during production hours, while allowing for granular restores through the Veeam console, the engineer should A: Schedule transaction log processing every 30 minutes. By enabling application-aware processing for the SQL VM and scheduling the main backup job to run every 24 hours, the base image of the SQL database is protected. However, to achieve a more granular Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and ensure the ability to restore to specific points in time, transaction log backups must be performed more frequently. Configuring the backup job to process transaction logs every 30 minutes captures the SQL database changes more frequently without the overhead of a full backup, allowing for point-in-time restores directly from the Veeam console without the need for SQL Management Studio (SSMS) or a Database Administrator (DBA). This setup aligns with the goals of maintaining operational efficiency and minimizing the impact on production while ensuring robust data protection capabilities.
QUESTION 107
What is the primary benefit of configuring replica mapping?
A. Compressed WAN traffic
B. Deduplicated WAN traffic
C. Reduced WAN traffic
D. Encrypted WAN traffic
Answer: C
Explanation:
The primary benefit of configuring replica mapping in Veeam Backup & Replication is C: Reduced WAN traffic. Replica mapping is a feature that allows an administrator to map an existing VM in the disaster recovery site to a replica job. This is particularly useful when the initial replication of a large VM has been performed by other means (such as shipping a hard drive with the VM data to the DR site) or if a replica VM already exists and needs to be re-synced with the source VM. By using replica mapping, Veeam can avoid transferring the entire VM over the WAN again and instead only synchronize the differences between the source VM and the existing replica. This significantly reduces the amount of data that needs to be transferred over the WAN, conserving bandwidth and speeding up the replication process. It’s an efficient way to manage replicas, especially for large VMs or in environments with limited bandwidth.
QUESTION 108
Which two public cloud infrastructures can be backed up without an agent? (Choose two.)
A. AWS
B. Tencent Cloud
C. Alibaba Cloud
D. Oracle VM Virtualbox
E. Microsoft Azure
Answer: AE
Explanation:
Veeam provides agentless backup solutions for several public cloud infrastructures, among which AWS (Amazon Web Services) and Microsoft Azure are the prominent platforms supported. Thus, the correct answers are A: AWS and E: Microsoft Azure.
For AWS, Veeam offers Veeam Backup for AWS, an agentless solution designed to protect AWS workloads by leveraging native AWS technologies. This solution allows for the backup and recovery of AWS EC2 instances without the need for agents inside the instances, providing efficient and flexible cloud-native data protection.
In the case of Microsoft Azure, Veeam Backup for Microsoft Azure provides a similar agentless data protection capability, allowing for the backup and recovery of Azure VMs. This solution also utilizes native Azure technologies to facilitate seamless integration and management of backups within the Azure ecosystem.
These solutions are designed to provide comprehensive data protection for cloud workloads, simplifying management while ensuring robust backup and recovery capabilities in these public cloud environments.
QUESTION 109
What can Veeam Service Providers deploy in the Veeam Service Provider Console v7.0?
A. Enterprise pluqins
B. Veeam backup aqents
C. Veeam Backup for Microsoft 365
D. Veeam One
Answer: B
Explanation:
Veeam Service Provider Console allows service providers to deploy Veeam backup agents to protect physical and virtual environments, including workstations, servers, and cloud instances.
QUESTION 110
An engineer is using Veeam Backup and Replication v12. The only backup repository is a Microsoft Windows server with direct attached Fibre Channel storage array.
The engineer realizes that none of their backups are immutable. A second copy of the backup on a different site and a different media is required.
Which option should be used to provide immutable backups on a secondary site with a different media?
A. Create a Scale Out Backup Repository with the existing Microsoft Windows Server as the performance tier and an HPe StoreOnce Catalyst share with immutability enabled as the capacity tier.
B. Create a Scale Out Backup Repository with the existing Microsoft Windows Server as the performance tier and AWS S3 bucket with immutability enabled as the capacity tier.
C. Create a new hardened repository on a new Microsoft Windows Server, mark it as immutable and create a backup copy job on it.
D. Create a Scale Out Backup Repository with the existing Microsoft Windows Server as the performance tier and Google Cloud Object Storage with immutability enabled as the capacity tier.
Answer: B
Explanation:
To provide immutable backups on a secondary site with a different media, the best option given the context is B: Create a Scale Out Backup Repository (SOBR) with the existing Microsoft Windows Server as the performance tier and an AWS S3 bucket with immutability enabled as the capacity tier. This approach involves leveraging the existing backup infrastructure (Microsoft Windows Server with direct-attached storage) as the performance tier of the SOBR, where the most recent backups are stored for fast access. For long-term storage and immutability, backups can be offloaded to an AWS S3 bucket configured with Object Lock. The Object Lock feature in AWS S3 provides an additional layer of data protection by making the backup data immutable, meaning it cannot be deleted or modified for a specified duration. This setup ensures that backup data is protected against accidental deletion, ransomware, and other malicious activities.
By implementing this configuration, the engineer can achieve the desired level of data protection and immutability, utilizing cloud storage as a secure and scalable secondary backup location, distinct from the primary on-premises storage media.
QUESTION 111
An infrastructure with 50 VMs has a power outage. After the VMware cluster has booted up again, 10 large VMs are orphaned. However, all VM disk files are still on the datastores. What is the quickest way to bring back those VMs with the least possible data loss?
A. Remove the existinq VM disk files from the datastore and perform Instant VM Recovery
B. Perform Instant VM Recovery with quick rollback with automatic Power On VM at the end.
C. Perform Restore VM Files and only restore the VM configuration files.
D. Use the “Restore guest files” option to restore the VM configuration files.
Answer: C
Explanation:
In a situation where VMs are orphaned after a power outage but their disk files remain intact on the datastores, the most efficient way to restore these VMs with minimal data loss is C: Perform Restore VM Files and only restore the VM configuration files. This approach involves using Veeam Backup & Replication to restore only the necessary VMX files (for VMware) or equivalent configuration files for other hypervisors, which contain the settings and configuration of the VMs. Since the disk files are still present and intact on the datastores, restoring the configuration files allows the VMs to be re- registered with the hypervisor and brought back online quickly, without the need to transfer or restore the entire VM disk files, thus minimizing downtime and data loss.
QUESTION 112
A Veeam administrator wants to diagnose known issues in the configuration and performance of backup infrastructure without involving Veeam Technical Support. What feature of Veeam One should the administrator use?
A. Intelligent Diagnostics
B. Log Shipping Servers
C. Business View
D. Best Practices Analyzer
Answer: A
Explanation:
For diagnosing known issues in the configuration and performance of the backup infrastructure without the direct involvement of Veeam Technical Support, the administrator should utilize A:
Intelligent Diagnostics in Veeam One. Intelligent Diagnostics is a feature designed to proactively detect known issues within the Veeam backup infrastructure by analyzing the system’s event logs, performance data, and configurations. It uses predefined patterns and rules derived from common issues identified by Veeam Support to provide early warnings and suggest corrective actions. This self-service approach enables administrators to address potential problems before they impact operations, enhancing the reliability and efficiency of the backup infrastructure.
QUESTION 113
Management asks a backup administrator to deploy the Veeam Agent on a number of Amazon EC2 instances running Windows and Linux operating systems. A Veeam Protection Group is also required by management. The Veeam Distribution Server does not have network access to these instances. What protection group type should be used to select these objects?
A. Individual computers
B. Microsoft Active Directory objects
C. Computers listed in a CSV file
D. Cloud machines
Answer: D
Explanation:
For deploying the Veeam Agent on Amazon EC2 instances running Windows and Linux operating systems without direct network access from the Veeam Distribution Server, the appropriate type of Protection Group to use is D: Cloud machines. The “Cloud machines” protection group type in Veeam Backup & Replication is specifically designed for protecting cloud-based workloads, including instances in public cloud environments like Amazon EC2. This protection group type allows the Veeam Agent to be deployed and managed remotely, even when the Veeam Distribution Server cannot directly access the instances over the network. It facilitates centralized management of backup tasks for cloud instances, ensuring that the EC2 instances are adequately protected as per management’s request, despite the network accessibility constraints.
QUESTION 114
What is the purpose of a Cache Repository when adding the file share?
A. To walk the file shares and move data to the backup repository
B. To control how fast the backup proxy can read data from the source file share
C. To make sure backup retention is being managed correctly
D. To store temporary metadata and track all objects that have changed
Answer: D
Explanation:
The purpose of a Cache Repository when adding a file share in Veeam Backup & Replication is D: To store temporary metadata and track all objects that have changed. When Veeam Backup & Replication backs up data from file shares, it uses the Cache Repository to store metadata related to the files and directories on the share. This metadata includes information about file versions, change logs, and the structure of the file share, which is essential for efficient backup operations, incremental backups, and restore operations. The Cache Repository plays a crucial role in tracking changes between backup jobs, enabling Veeam to perform quick incremental backups by only processing the data that has changed since the last backup, thereby optimizing backup performance and reducing network and storage load.
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